Flight Surgeon Course (FSC) Module E Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• In a military medical system, should Role 1 evacuate its own patients to Role 2?
• What is a cause of refractory shock in the canine patient?
• Which barotrauma is most commonly encountered during altitude changes?
• ESF 8 is responsible for which area?
• Which statement best describes the role of medical technicians on an aeromedical team?
• What is a ¼ 'shock dose' of fluids for an MWD?
• What is the general rule for treating suspected acute coronary syndrome in flight?
• Posse Comitatus Act: Title 10 can be used for domestic law enforcement if...
• What is the primary compensatory response to hypoxia in healthy aircrew at altitude?
• What are two primary risk factors for in-flight venous thromboembolism?
• What is the overall purpose of DSCA missions?
• Which law gives the President authority to direct the Department of Defense to provide domestic disaster aid?
• What type of hypoxia is caused by reduced inspired oxygen partial pressure at altitude?
• Role II assets are provided by which units?
• Which neurologic signs would raise concern for Type II DCS during flight?
• Enroute medical care during MEDEVAC is intended to...
• The one-hour evacuation standard for Priority I and IA patients originated from a memo by which official?
• Medical Command and Control belongs to which functional area?
• Health Service Support (HSS) mission is included in?
• A DSCA mission always begins with what from a local civil authority?
• Aeromedical evacuation planning is intended to coordinate safe transport and care for which patients?
• Which category of patient exists in US Army doctrine but not in NATO STANAGs?
• Which term describes optimizing medical resources to maximize effectiveness in MEDEVAC?
• How should suspected carbon monoxide exposure be managed in flight?
• What is the first-line treatment for suspected in-flight hypoxia?
• What is a common method for color vision screening in aviation?
• Which statement best describes the policy for fever and infectious symptoms in duty status?
• Which vaccination is commonly recommended for aircrew on an annual basis?
• With the medical interior installed, how many litter patients can the HH-60M carry?
• Which of the following is a Health Service Support (HSS) functional area?
• Which mitigation strategy helps offset circadian disruption?
• Which defines how federal forces support civil authorities?
• The Medical Equipment Set, Air Ambulance was developed for which of the following purposes?
• Role IV care is typically delivered in which setting?
• When is a preflight exercise stress test indicated for aircrew?
• Which drug classes are generally avoided in aircrew due to impairment risk?
• What does CP-EMEDS stand for in USAF medical assets?
• Which Marine Corps medical element can augment a Role 1 or Role 2 to increase treatment and patient hold capacity?
• Which scenario would most clearly warrant deferring duty until medical evaluation?
• True or False: Human plasma transfusion is safe for canine patients.
• How does microgravity affect bodily fluids, and what symptoms can occur?
• Why is proper hydration important for aircrew performance?
• Which statement about vaccines for aircrew is accurate?
• Military forces must document costs of all support provided.
• Which statement best describes protocol development in flight medicine?
• Which PMRC function involves tracking patient status during transport?
• What is the recommended stance on alcohol use for aircrew prior to flying?
• What two mission requirements does the Army Health System support?
• Role IV medical care consists of?
• What is the smallest, most basic surgical element contained in a Surgical Platoon and found farthest forward in Marine Corps operations?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed type of Military Working Dog (MWD)?
• Which preventive measure helps prevent sinus barotrauma?
• What is the purpose of altitude illness education for flight crews?
• G-LOC is caused by cerebral hypoperfusion due to reduced venous return. Which option matches this mechanism?
• Which statement about US Forces displaying the Red Cross is true?
• Which of the following is NOT a function of an effective medical evacuation system?
• What are the two Role 2 USAF assets?
• What is the process called that manages crew rest?
• What is the maximum number of litter patients a CASEVAC CH-47 can carry?
• How is a suspected seizure disorder managed in aircrew?
• What is the effect of alcohol on flight performance and decompression risk?
• What equipment best mitigates high-G effects on cerebral perfusion?
• What does the PEB review to make retention vs separation determinations?
• Which statement accurately describes when a preflight cardiovascular risk assessment is indicated?
• Using quick math, what is the approximate ¼ shock dose for a 70 lb MWD?
• What optional report contains additional patient information for the enroute care provider?
• Type I decompression sickness symptom is most characteristic:
• Which Forward Surgical System is the farthest forward in Marine operations?
• If an in-flight asthma exacerbation persists after initial measures, what is the recommended action?
• Circadian disruption in flight performance primarily causes what change?
• Non-Medical Personnel Role I is which of the following?
• In DSCA, the Army falls under which two Emergency Support Functions?
• Medical assets lose their protected status by which action?
• The Medical Platoon provides which level of care?
• Which of the following is a responsibility of the BMSO?
• What is the minimum continuing education hours required for NREMT-P recertification?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of the Medical Equipment Set, Air Ambulance?
• Which statement about the Medical Equipment Set, Air Ambulance is accurate?
• How does cabin temperature contribute to hypothermia risk in flight?
• Designated medical platforms staffed and equipped to provide enroute medical care are called what?
• Which of the following is NOT part of CRM emphasis in aviation safety?
• Which instrument is a primary source of Law of Armed Conflict that covers the wounded and sick?
• What causes decompression sickness in aircrew?
• What considerations govern the use of decongestants like pseudoephedrine in aircrew?
• Which item is NOT typically included in an in-flight aeromedical kit?
• Flight Paramedics must show competency in unit and medical protocols, and maintain current certification to be RL 1?
• What tool does TRANSCOM utilize for medical regulating?
• The Flight Paramedic Training Pipeline is composed of how many phases, and what are they?
• Distinguish Type I and Type II decompression sickness by their main clinical features.
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a difference between ASMP and FSMP?
• When dealing with suspected ACS in flight, which combination of actions is recommended?
• A Title 10 (Active Duty) infantry company can be ordered to establish traffic checkpoints at a Presidential Inauguration. True or False?
• Why are vaccines important for aircrew, and name one routinely recommended vaccine?
• Which statement best describes the Flight Surgeon’s collaboration in developing written medical protocols?
• In an air ambulance company, aeromedical provider serves as which role?
• FHP mission is under?
• Which organization is responsible for Medical regulating, Clinical validation, Lift-Bed planning, and In-transit visibility?
• True or False: The USNS Comfort and Mercy always have a full complement of medical personnel.
• Under the Posse Comitatus Act, Title 10 forces may be used in domestic law enforcement only if explicitly authorized by what?
• Critical Care Paramedics must recertify their NREMT-P every ___?
• What is the recommended action if you suspect in-flight decompression sickness?
• What are typical signs of ear/barotrauma during ascent or descent?
• What benefit describes linking medical support across echelons in MEDEVAC?
• ESF 11 covers which area?
• Which of the following is a major environmental health risk associated with high-altitude flight?
• Types of MWDs include which of the following?
• Hospitalization is a functional area of which group?
• Which statement accurately differentiates MEDEVAC from CASEVAC?
• What is typically required before returning to flight duties after pregnancy?
• Which hypoxia type results from cellular inability to utilize oxygen due to toxins?
• What is the purpose of oxygen saturation monitoring in flight?
• Type II decompression sickness includes which symptoms?
• What is the primary function of the aeromedical provider within an air ambulance company?
• Operational Public Health is categorized as which type of functional area?
• What two ground elements ensure smooth transfer from the intra-theater to the inter-theater patient movement system?
• Which principle focuses on minimizing the distance between patient and care?
• Under what condition may medical personnel use weapons against enemy forces?
• What is the most basic element for effectively providing health support?
• Two Emergency Support Functions does the Army fall under in DSCA?
• A crew's typical duty day starts when?
• What is the primary mission of the ambulance squad?
• Where is the ASMP located relative to the brigade area of operation?
• What is the only aeromedical evacuation (AE) asset that can move critical care (ICU) patients?
• Role 1 Medical Personnel are which of the following?
• What does ESF stand for?
• Which of the following is NOT a Role 2 USAF asset?
• The BSMC can hold up to how many patients who can return to duty within 72 hours?
• Which statement about histotoxic hypoxia is correct?
• What are the Role 3 USAF assets?
• Which is a common cause of sinus barotrauma in aircrew?
• According to AR 95-1, who can approve urgent surgical MEDEVAC missions?
• Which of the following best describes Role II assets?
• Midazolam used as a sole sedative in a stable dog may cause what effect?
• Request For Assistance (RFA) are completed with what form?
• In the event of a hypoxia during ascent, what is the recommended action?
• What does Article 24 of the Geneva Wounded and Sick conventions provide?
• Which statement best describes the mechanism underlying decompression sickness?
• What is the MEDEVAC planning criterion for flight time?
• Which asset corresponds to the US Navy Hospital Ships (USNS Mercy & Comfort)?
• Which of the following is NOT a Phase of TC3?
• The patient holding squad in the BSMC can hold patients for up to how long?
• How long is the Critical Care Course within the Flight Paramedic Training Pipeline?
• How many vehicles are allocated to the treatment squad?
• What is the definition of a Casualty Collection Point (CCP)?
• The primary mission of the Division Surgeon Section is to plan, coordinate, and synchronize the division's AHS support under whose supervision?
• During duty, how should fever and infectious symptoms be handled?
• What are the radius and diameter of a MEDEVAC ring?
• What role does the aeromedical provider serve in an air ambulance company?
• Which of the following accurately lists the four functions of the Patient Movement Requirements Centers?
• A DSCA mission always begins with what from a local civil authority?
• What is an appropriate additional action during suspected in-flight hypoxia besides oxygen administration?
• What is the recommended action for suspected anaphylaxis during flight?
• Which of the following is included in Role II capabilities?
• Why isn't the ground force commander the mission launch approval authority?
• The BMSO is responsible for medical equipment maintenance and repair of organic equipment assigned to BSMC and supported and attached units. Which role does this refer to?
• Which factors amplify galactic cosmic radiation exposure during flight?
• Which two of the six principles would the concept of reaching reduced evacuation times fall under?
• Which item is used to aid airway management in flight?
• Who provides guidance to the Flight Surgeon in establishing written medical protocols?
• What is the purpose of aeromedical evacuation planning in FSC Module E?
• How should suspected infectious disease exposures be managed during duty?
• Which of the following is NOT a PMRC function?
• A Title 10 infantry company at an inauguration can be ordered to establish traffic checkpoints. True or False?
• How many FSMP are in the Air Ambulance Company?
• Which law gives the President authority to direct the Department of Defense to provide domestic aid for disasters?
• Which benzodiazepine is commonly known as Versed?
• Within the air ambulance team, which role does the aeromedical provider primarily fulfill?
• Which statement best describes the role of the Flight Surgeon in establishing written medical protocols?
• What does CRM emphasize in aviation safety?
• Medical assets lose their protected status when they are not exclusively engaged in which activities?
• What basic cardiovascular screening tools are commonly used preflight?
• What action is recommended for a suspected in-flight internal medical emergency requiring rapid evacuation?
• Which vaccination is typically recommended annually for aircrew?
• G-induced loss of consciousness (G-LOC) is best defined as what?
• What is the main source of ionizing radiation aircrew receive at altitude?
• Which option correctly describes the aeromedical provider's role within an air ambulance company?
• What is the MEDEVAC planning criterion for airspeed?
• What are the four types of Decisive Action missions?
• Why should aircrew avoid sedating medications before or during flight?
• Which term refers to the unregulated movement of casualties using predesignated or opportune tactical or logistic aircraft and vehicles?
• Which capability does the BSMC (Role 2) provide regarding dental care?
• Which element functions to augment Role 1/2 to increase treatment and patient hold capacity?
• Who is in charge during DSCA missions?
• Which hypoxia is associated with carbon monoxide exposure?
• What is the difference between evacuation in a contiguous versus non-contiguous AO?
• For patients referred from Role 1 MTFs, the BSMC offers which service?
• True or False: A Carrier Strike Group will accept casualties from the shore.
• Which option best describes Enroute Patient Staging Systems?
• Which statement best describes migraine management for aircrew?
• Which METT-TC factor includes considerations for safety and neutrality under international law during evacuation?
• What does MPC stand for in Military Working Dog classifications?
• What prodrome is typical before G-LOC?
• Which description best captures the governance structure behind protocol development in air medical operations?
• Which is a potential consequence of barotrauma during flight?
• The BSMC contains a mental health section.
• DSCA stands for what type of decisive action mission?
• In METT-TC factors for MEDEVAC, which factor addresses airspace command and control (C2)?
• What are two common early clinical signs of hypoxia in flight?
• What is the definition of an Ambulance Exchange Point?
• A canine suffering from massive hemorrhage may receive 1 unit of human plasma.
• How many platoons make up an Air Ambulance Company?
• Which lines of the 9-line medical evacuation request are mandatory?
• Which LOAC principle requires that combatants and military objectives be distinguishable from civilians and civilian objects?
• COSC stands for which of the following?
• Why is proper ear and sinus health important for pilots?
• What does the AHS require in order to effectively and efficiently clear the battlefield of casualties and to provide the highest standard of care to our wounded or ill Soldiers?
• How is an in-flight asthma exacerbation commonly managed?
• What high-G exposure effect most directly leads to G-LOC?
• What size endotracheal tube is appropriate for a standard 30 - 35 kg MWD?
• NOT a METT-TC factor affecting medical evacuation?
• How do most aviation medical policies address pregnancy and flight duties?
• The one-hour evacuation standard was incorporated into Army Regulation (AR) 40-3.
• Which symptom is most characteristic of ear barotrauma during ascent or descent?
• Which vein is the preferred site to place an IV catheter in a canine patient?
• What Army Regulation prohibits us from carrying crew-served weapons on MEDEVAC aircraft?
• What is the role of aspirin in suspected ACS in flight?
• Midazolam (Versed) should not be used as a sole agent to sedate a stable dog.
• The BSMC (Role 2) provides Class VIII supply support to units in the brigade AO. Which statement is true?
• Where does the authority begin for Medical Mission Approval?
• What is the recommended approach to in-flight fever with respiratory symptoms?
• When do federal forces depart DSCA support?
• Which of the following is NOT provided by Role II medical support?
• Which of the following are intratheater roles of care?
• Who is responsible for inter-theater aeromedical evacuation?
• Which of the following statements about the Medical Equipment Set, Air Ambulance is true?